Sunday, 28 September 2014

PULSE OXIMETRY










The concept of pulse-oximetry is based on the Beer-Lambert law, which states that the concentration of an unknown solute in a solvent can be determined by light absorption i.e.
L (out) = L (in) - (D.C.a)
where, L = Intensity of light
C= concentration of solution
D = distance the hight travels through the solution
a = absorption coefficient of solute.
As we are interested in whether oxygen is attached to haemoglobin or not, the relevant solutes are oxyhaemoglobin and reduced heamoglobin. The absorption characteristics of these two are at two different wavelengths of 940 nm (infared) and 660 nm (red) respectively (i.e.). Reduced heamoglobin
absorbs more red than infrared light and oxygenated haemoglobin absorbs more infrared than red.


Q. pulse oximeter works on the following principal:
a) Beer Lambert's law
b) Raman scattering effect
c) Venturi principle
d) Mass spectrometry

Ans: a.

Thursday, 25 September 2014

GCS






Glasgow Coma Score
Eye Opening  Verbal (Nonintubated)  Verbal (Intubated)  Motor Activity 
4—Spontaneous 5—Oriented and talks 5—Seems able to talk 6—Verbal command
3—Verbal stimuli 4—Disoriented and talks 3—Questionable ability to talk 5—Localizes to pain
2—Painful stimuli 3—Inappropriate words 1—Generally unresponsive 4—Withdraws to pain
1—No response 2—Incomprehensible sounds 3—Decorticate
1—No response 2—Decerebrate
1—No response




Q. A 19-year-old woman collapses at a concert and is witnessed to have a tonic-clonic seizure lasting 2 minutes. When the paramedics arrive and ask her questions, she mumbles but no-one can understand what she is saying. Only when the paramedic
applies pressure to her nail bed does she open her eyes and reach out with her other hand to rub her nail and then push him away. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
A. 12
B. 11
C. 10
D. 9
E. 8
Ans: D

The GCS is frequently used to assess level of consciousness. The lowest score is 3, the highest 15. A score of 8 or below is classified as coma. GCS is assessed by evaluating eye (1–4), verbal (1–5) and motor (1–6) response. Clinically, it is best to assess for the highest possible score and work down. So, if a patient is not opening their eyes spontaneously, assess whether they respond to verbal command and only then to pain. In this case, E = 2 (responds to pain), V = 2 (incomprehensible sounds), M = 5 (localizes to pain), giving this patient a GCS of 9/15. It is important to carefully monitor her GCS, like most measurements a trend is more useful than a one-off assessment.


 source: Harrison internal medicine

Multple Sclerosis PROGNOSIS

Q. 42-year-old woman presents with ataxia. Gadolinium-enhanced MRI reveals multiple subcortical white matter lesions as well as enhancing lesions in the cerrebellum and spinal cord. She is diagnosed with MS. Two months later she develops optic neuritis. What feature is associated with a milder disease course?
A. Her age of 42
B. Her initial presentation of ataxia
C. Her female gender
D. The interval between the two episodes of two months
E. Her MRI scan appearance



Ans:  C
Most patients with clinically evident MS ultimately experience progressive neurologic disability. For unclear reasons, the long-term prognosis for untreated MS appears to have improved in recent years. In addition, the development of disease-modifying therapies for MS also appears to have favorably improved the long-term outlook. Although the prognosis in an individual is difficult to establish, certain clinical features suggest a more favorable prognosis. These include ON or sensory symptoms at onset, fewer than two relapses in the first year of illness, and minimal impairment after 5 years. By contrast, patients with truncal ataxia, action tremor, pyramidal symptoms, or a progressive disease course are more likely to become disabled. Patients with a long-term favorable course are likely to have developed fewer MRI lesions during the early years of disease, and vice versa. Importantly, some MS patients have a benign variant of MS and never develop neurologic disability. The likelihood of having benign MS is thought to be <20%. Patients with benign MS 15 years after onset who have entirely normal neurologic examinations are likely to maintain their benign course.
In patients with their first demyelinating event (i.e., a clinically isolated syndrome), the brain MRI provides prognostic information. With three or more typical T2-weighted lesions, the risk of developing MS after 20 years is  80%. Conversely, with a normal brain MRI, the likelihood of developing MS is <20%. Similarly, two or more Gd-enhancing lesions at baseline is highly predictive of future MS, as is the appearance of either new T2-weighted lesions or new Gd enhancement 3 months after the initial episode.
Mortality as a direct consequence of MS is uncommon, although it has been estimated that the 25-year survival is only 85% of expected. Death can occur during an acute MS attack, although this is distinctly rare. More commonly, death occurs as a complication of MS (e.g., pneumonia in a debilitated individual). Death can also result from suicide.
In this woman’s case, all of the features except her gender (C) point to a more aggressive disease course. Although it is close to impossible to predict an individual patient's outcome, features of a better prognosis include onset under 25 years (A), optic neuritis or sensory, rather than cerebellar symptoms on initial presentation (B), a long interval (>1 year) between relapses (D) and few lesions on MRI (E). Full recovery from relapses is also a positive feature. Progressive MS carries a poorer prognosis compared to relapsing–remitting MS.

Wednesday, 24 September 2014

BROWN SEQUARD SYNDROME

Q. A 23-year-old man is stabbed in the neck. Once stabilized, his MRI shows a right hemisection of the cord at C6. What is the expected result of this injury?
A. Paralysed diaphragm
B. Absent sensation to temperature in the left hand
C. Paralysis of the left hand
D. Absent sensation to light touch in the left hand
E. Brisk right biceps reflex


Ans: B

Hemisection of the cord is also known as Brown–Séquard syndome. This results in ipsilateral paralysis and loss of light touch and vibration sensation and contralateral loss in pain and temperature below the point of the lesion. The spinothalamic tracts cross at the level of the cord, so sensation to pain and temperature is lost in the contralateral limbs . C3, 4, 5 keep the diaphragm alive (A), so breathing should be preserved. As the right corticospinal tract has been severed, the right, ipsilateral hand would be paralysed as well as the right leg. The left dorsal columns carry light touch fibres from the left limb . They have been unaffected by the injury. C6 is responsible for the biceps reflex and would be lost . Reflexes distal to the lesion would be brisk.







source: Greys anatomy.